I don’t understand this. Someone on reddit is trying to say women aren’t supposed to have periods every month and are using some references to older societies where women had less periods a year….because they had more pregnancies. Can someone please tell me how you can infer that this means less periods by nature? More babies means more breaks from your period, it means nine months without a period and then another one or two months for your body to go back to normal and start periods again. It’s not modern society that’s caused women to have a period every month, it’s how our bodies work and using examples that include more pregnancies doesn’t prove otherwise because if you take out those pregnancies you end up with an average 28 day cycle. I mean holy fuck the lack of basic knowledge on the internet just astounds me.
Like, don’t tell me it’s the pill that’s responsible for more periods, a pill that’s designed to emulate my body’s natural hormonal cycle, and that past societies, who had women constantly having baby after baby, had less periods a month. My God and the dude who posted it is defending this as if he knows a Damn about biology and the female body.
…And ancient culture. There’s a REASON the moon is associated with women, and it isn’t because the sun has nadgers.
Did you know there’s a hypothesis that primitively-until-recently in human history, most peoples were biphasic in sleep? Or that the invention of cooking, as a form of protein predigestion, led to explosive hominid brain development?
It’s not completely guano that, as organisms, we have changed over time, or that things like diet and technology play a role in molding us, but these kinds of things require good evidence and/or firm theoretical basis.